A 60-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-year history of progressive right leg pain. He has a history.

A 60-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-year history of progressive right leg pain. He has a history of hypertension but not diabetes mellitus. His medications include hydrochlorothiazide and aspirin. On examination, his blood pressure is 150/70 mm Hg and his pulse is 70 beats per minute and regular. Cardiac examination fi ndings are normal. Vascular examination identifi es palpable but diminished pulses in the popliteal and posterior tibial arteries bilaterally with an absent dorsalis pedis pulse on the left . Which of the following features would be most useful to distinguish intermittent claudication from pseudoclaudication as the primary cause of his symptoms? a. History of nicotine addiction b. Symptoms brought on by exertion c. Soft bruit over the right common femoral artery d. Ankle-brachial index of 0.80 on the right and 0.85 on the left e. Symptom relief with sitting only

 

Do you need a similar assignment done for you from scratch? We have qualified writers to help you. We assure you an A+ quality paper that is free from plagiarism. Order now for an Amazing Discount!
Use Discount Code “Newclient” for a 15% Discount!

NB: We do not resell papers. Upon ordering, we do an original paper exclusively for you.

The post A 60-year-old man is evaluated for a 1-year history of progressive right leg pain. He has a history. appeared first on Affordable Nursing Writers.